What will be my answer and is there any previous judgment regarding this
Situation : Sunita gave a power of attorney to his husband vinod to sell her land in 1967. Accordingly vinod sell land to hanuman in 1968 via Special power of attorney. Now vinod sell this land to me in 1975.
Now the question is that a criminal person has objection in assistant collector court that sale deed of 1968 and SPA 1967 as illegal because sunita has not recorded her name in mutation But after sunita hanuman and mine and my son mutation entries has been paased.
He is saying Automatically all sale deed are null and void. He wants that land get to government.
Now according to law what will be my answer and is there any previous judgment regarding this
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